A SMALL GLIMPSE INTO THE SEPTUAGINT HISTORY
The Septuagint version was in use for about three centuries before the books of the New Testament were written, and was the bible of the Apostles and Jesus Himself. Also, we have the books of the Apocrypha which you will find in the Septuagint bible today which is to be used as all other scripture. Along with this, the Authorized version New Testament (King James as well as the NKJV bible) is superior to all modern translations of today. So, that's why I use the Septuagint bible.
So, here is a little background on the Septuagint. This is from the Preface and Introduction to the Septuagint itself written by Sir Lancelot C.L. Brenton in 1851:
"The Septuagint (from the Latin septuaginta, meaning "seventy," and frequently referred to by the roman numerals LXX) is the Greek translation of the Old Testament. The name derives from the tradition that it was made by seventy (or seventy-two) Jewish scholars at Alexandria, Egypt during the reign of Ptolemy Philadelphus (285-247 B.C.). "The earliest version of the Old Testament Scriptures which is extant, or of which we possess any certain knowledge, is the translation executed at Alexandria in the third century before the Christian era.
"The Septuagint version having been current for about three centuries before the time when the books of the New Testament were written, it is not surprising that the Apostles should have used it more often than not in making citations from the Old Testament. They used it as an honestly made version in pretty general use at the time when they wrote. They did not on every occasion give an authoritative translation of each passage de nova [which means anew], but they used what was already familiar to the ears of converted Hellenists, when it was sufficiently accurate to suit the matter in hand. In fact, they used it as did their contemporary Jewish writers, Philo and Josephus, but not, however, with the blind implicitness of the former.
"The veneration with which the Jews had treated this version [the Septuagint] (as is shown in the case of Philo and Josephus) [because Philo and Josephus quoted the Septuagint], gave place to a very contrary feeling when they [the Jews] found how it could be used against them in argument: hence they decreed the version, and sought to deprive it of all authority. [Previous to this, it was the Word of God as they were concerned. But as soon as the early church started using it against them and pointing out the depravity of Judaism, they tried to discredit the Septuagint]. As the Gentile Christians were generally unacquainted with Hebrew, they were unable to meet the Jews on the ground which they now took; and as the Gentile Christians…fully embraced…its authority and inspiration, they necessarily regarded the denial on the part of the Jews of its accuracy, as little less than blasphemy, and as proof of their blindness."
The Jews upheld the Septuagint very strongly for the first 300 years as the Word of God, but when the Christians took a hold of it, then the Jews rejected it. Then the Jews started rewriting the Septuagint in the 2nd and 3rd centuries to suit their purposes. They were "Making the word of God of none effect through [their] tradition " (Mark 7:13).
GETTING DOWN TO THE SCRIPTURES
How you are fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, who rose up in the morning! He who sends for all the nations is crushed to the earth.
In this passage of Isaiah, we have a description of Satan who is here referred to as “Lucifer” (light bearer) in the Septuagint as well as by some other versions of the bible. However, there are those versions that make it confusing by calling him "morning star," a word used for Jesus Christ in the New Testament, or even "Day Star," a word that's also used in the New Testament and says: "We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: (2 Peter 1:19 KJV). Some other versions that read as the Septuagint are the KJV, the 1599 Geneva, NKJV, WEB, and DBY. The HNV uses the Hebrew word itself (heylel) and the YLT says “shining one.
And I will say to him, ‘What are these wounds in the middle of your hands?’ And he will say, ‘Those with which I was wounded in the house of my beloved.’ “O sword, raise up against My shepherds, and against My fellow-man,” says the Lord Almighty. “Smite the shepherds and draw out the sheep, and I shall bring My hand against the shepherds.
Here in Zechariah 13:6-7 we have a prophecy concerning our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. In verse 7 we have the prophecy of what would take place on the night of His betrayal concerning Him and His disciples (see Matthew 26:31). Also, before this in verse six, we read of One that would receive wounds upon him and by whom He would acquire them. In the literal Hebrew, it says that He would receive these wounds in His “hands” at the house of his friends (see Psalms 22:16 and Luke 24:39). I as well as (1)others, believe this is talking about our Lord Jesus who was crucified for our sins, having his hands nailed to the cross. However, from what we can see from the majority of the more popular versions quoted below, this Hebrew word for hands is being change into words such as arms, back or chest. So my question is, isn’t there in the Hebrew language literal words for these (2)other choices used? Of course there is. So wouldn’t it make sense if God wanted any of these other words to be used, He would have had Zechariah use their literal words themselves? God is not the author of confusion (1 Corinthians 14:33). It is also worth noting, that the NASV has in its footnotes that the Hebrew is literally “hands.” So why didn’t they use it? Some other versions that also use the literal translation “hands” are the KJV, 1599 Geneva, the original NKJV (1982 edition), Webster's, Darby, Young's, MKJV, and UKJV.
No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him. (John 1:18)
John here in this passage is telling us that it is the Son (Jesus) who is in the bosom of the Father and this makes perfect sense. Even though He is God in the flesh, when referring to His relationship with the Father, He is the Son. We can see that this true from other passages such as John 3:16, 3:35 and others as well. Some other more modern versions however make this passage in John 1:18 confusing by substituting the word Son for the word God. No doubt Jesus is God. But as said before, when it comes to His relationship with the Father, He is the Son. Other bible versions that have the word “Son” are the 1599 Geneva, Webster, NKJV, HCSB, NIV, ASV, RSV, HNV, UKJV, and MKJV). Version that don't use the word “Son” are listed below.
"No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven. (John 3:13)
The bible says concerning Jesus in Matthew's Gospel that they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. We also know from scripture that God is Omnipresent (Psalms 138). Jesus Himself said to Nathanael: Before that Philip called thee, when thou wast under the fig tree, I saw thee (John 1:48). So all this being said, I have no problem believing that the scripture quoted above is true. However, there are those versions that have a shorter reading of the above passage in that they have left out “which is in heaven.” Again, I believe that the KJV as well as the 1599 Geneva, NKJV, ASV, HNV, MKJV, UKJV, Darby, Young's, and Webster's bible have the correct wording.
Now a leper came to Him, imploring Him, kneeling down to Him and saying to Him, "If You are willing, You can make me clean." Then Jesus, moved with compassion, stretched out His hand and touched him, and said to him, "I am willing; be cleansed." (Mark 1:40-41)
Here we have our Savior Jesus showing love and compassion to the Leper. The 1599 Geneva and all the modern versions I checked use the word “compassion” or “pity” for the feeling that Jesus had for the leper except for the NIV that says that Jesus was “indignant” which is to show anger. What is interesting however, is that the NIV uses this same word everywhere else as having compassion or pity. This is poor scripture translating at work.
1 Timothy 3:16
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the Gentiles, Believed on in the world, Received up in glory. (1 Timothy 3:16)
Here in this passage we have an affirmation of the truth of the Gospel that the Word (Jesus) which was God became flesh and dwelt among us (see John 1:14). The other translations quoted below fall short to point out this truth by using the word “He” instead of “God.” Yes it is true that one can come to the conclusion that these other versions are referring to Jesus Himself by what fallows, but they fail to hit home the fact that He is God in the flesh. Other bible versions that do include “God” are the 1599 Geneva, NKJV, YLT, DBY, Webster’s and HNV.
I commend to you Phoebe our sister, who is a servant of the church in Cenchrea, that you may receive her in the Lord in a manner worthy of the saints, and assist her in whatever business she has need of you; for indeed she has been a helper of many and of myself also. (Romans 16:1-2)
It is interesting that the bible passages listed below would actually use the words deacon, deaconess (Greek word diakonos) or minister (which appears as if Phebe, a sister in Christ is a leader in the church) instead of a more understandable word such as (1)servant which is used in some other passages of the bible. It is clear from scripture that a deacon is not a pastor or teacher in the church nor are they an Elder or Overseer, but instead are simply one who is chosen to serve in the church in one capacity or another. A good example of this would be the disciple Stephen who was chosen to be a helper in the church at Jerusalem as declared in the book of Acts (2)chapter six. He was appointed as a (3)diakonéō to serve tables in the church fellowship with seven others as well. We can see this truth in Peters own statement in this same chapter. For he, being an Elder said that it would not be proper that he should leave the teaching of God’s word and serve tables. So again, we see that the position of a deacon does not indicate one who is a church leader. Other versions that support the KJV are, the 1599 Geneva, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, NASB as well as a few others. Therefore, these verses listed below should not be used as some sort of proof texts to show that a woman can have a leadership possession in the church.
1 John 5:7-8
For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness on earth: the Spirit, the water, and the blood; and these three agree as one. (1 John 5:7-8)
Here we have the three witnesses in heaven and on earth that’s mentioned in the word of God above. However, more modern versions (those after the year 1900) cut these two verses down to size, removing the Three Witness in heaven in verse 7. Some of the more modern version that have made the cut are listed below. However, some of those bibles versions that are in keeping with the KJV are the 1599 Geneva, YLT, and the KJ3.
1 Thessalonians 4:3-6
For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from sexual immorality; that each of you should know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor, not in passion of lust, like the Gentiles who do not know God; that no one should take advantage of and defraud his brother in this matter, because the Lord is the avenger of all such, as we also forewarned you and testified. (1 Thessalonians 4:3-6)
In the KJV bible, the word vessel in the passage above is in reference to a husband finding sexual satisfaction in his (1)own wife (a vessel) and not in another man’s wife (see commentators below). He is to (2)possess or “acquire” his own wife. For we can see also from God’s word that a (3)vessel is referring to one that is to be used by another. We can see this to be true in (4)passages such as 2 Timothy 2:21 as well as in Acts 9:13-15 where we as Christians are to be vessels, useful for God’s good will and purpose. Also, in 1 Peter we see the word (5)vessel again being used, this time to describe a man’s wife as being the weaker (vessel) of the two. But if you read these newer bible versions, they take the word vessel and change it into the word “body” which makes it in reference to our own bodies and not to someone else’s (such as the wife mentioned above). What is also worth noting, there is a (6)Greek word for “body” in the bible that’s not the same Greek word as vessel. We must consider to be true to God’s intended words and not just insert our own. For by changing one of them, it can change the whole meaning of the passage itself. Below are those other versions that change the word ‘vessel” into the word ‘body.” It is worth noting that the RSV quotes the passage above as: “that each one of you know how to take a wife for himself in holiness and honor.” Also, what is interesting is the side notes of some of the other versions listed below which read: NLT: will know how to take a wife for himself; or will learn to live with his own wife, the NIV: learn to live with your own wife; or learn to acquire a wife, the ESV: how to take a wife for himself, and the HCSB: to acquire his own wife. The proof is in the pudding.
Jamieson, Fausset & Brown :: Commentary on 1 Thessalonians 4:3-6
John Wesley's Notes on the Bible on 1 Thessalonians 4:3-6
Gaebelein's Annoted Bible
Forever, O Lord, Your word continues in heaven. (Psalms 118:89 Septuagint)
Your word is a lamp to my feet and a light to my paths. (Psalm 118:105 Sept.)
(PRAY THAT GOD'S WORD WOULD BE MADE KNOWN)
And the Authorized New Testament
Glorifying God through Prayer and Worship
Living a Life that Pleases Our God